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Is Jesus Yahweh/Jehovah? By Dave Brown

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Is Jesus Yahweh/Jehovah? By Dave Brown Empty Is Jesus Yahweh/Jehovah? By Dave Brown

Post by Dhugz on Wed Aug 25, 2010 8:27 pm

The Name Yahweh

The name Yahweh (or Jehovah) appears nearly 7,000 times in the Old Testament. Most English
translations render the Hebrew name for God as LORD, while some (like the New Jerusalem Bible and
Rotherham’s Emphasized Bible) use “Yahweh” and others (like the American Standard Version of
1901 and the New World Translation) use “Jehovah.” But, between Malachi and Matthew the Name
suddenly disappears! There are over 5,000 Greek manuscripts of the New Testament, and not one of
them has the Name in either Greek or Hebrew letters. The Watchtower Society claims that the Name
was there in the original Greek New Testament, but that it was later removed. They claim this with no
real evidence, for they are unable to produce even one manuscript of the Greek New Testament with
the Name! Besides, some of those manuscripts of the New Testament date from within one
generation of the original writings. That leaves very little chance for the Society’s theory of a
conspiracy to remove the Name from the New Testament text. If we accept the facts the way they are
(without trying to change them to fit a preconceived theory) we are forced to admit the Name is not in
the New Testament.

The Name Jesus

In the New Testament we meet up with another name. The name that is emphasized in the New
Testament is the name of Jesus. (This makes for an interesting comparison in the New World
Translation. While the Watchtower Society “restores” the name Jehovah 237 times to the New
Testament, their Comprehensive Concordance lists the name Jesus over 900 times!) In the book of
Acts we particularly notice the emphasis of the name of Jesus. If you have an exhaustive
concordance look up the word “name” in the book of Acts. Over and over again you will see the
Name the early Christian church emphasized was the name of Jesus! At Acts 3:6 Peter healed the
lame beggar in the name of Jesus Christ. In Acts 4:7,10,12,17,18 we read about the first disciples
defending themselves before the Sanhedrin, proclaiming their use of the name of Jesus. In Chapter
5 they are back before the Jewish high court. For whose name did they suffer? Acts 5:41 tells us:
“These, therefore, went their way from before the Sanhedrin, rejoicing because they had been
counted worthy to be dishonored In behalf of his name.” They suffered for the name of Jesus! Space
does not permit us to look at all the relevant verses. Take time to consider these few: Acts 8:12; 9:13-
16, 27, 28; 15:26; 16:18; 19:17; 21:13; 26:9. In Acts the Name that is emphasized is the name of Jesus

Why the change of emphasis between the Old Testament Yahweh and the New Testament Jesus? Are
we being introduced to some rival deity in the New Testament when we encounter so much emphasis
on the name of Jesus? That is the way some nearly react when it is suggested that the answer lies in
the fact that the N.T. identifies Jesus with Yahweh. Bear in mind that I am not saying Jesus is the
Father! Rather, what I am saying is that Jesus and the Father share the same Name and are not in
some sort of competition.

Is Jesus Really Jehovah?

Charles Taze Russell, the first President of the Watchtower Society, was firm in his belief that the
name Jehovah could not be applied to Jesus. He is quoted with apparent approval on page 22 of the
Society’s official history book Jehovah’s Witnesses in the Divine Purpose (published in 1959):

“We confidently assert that the name Jehovah is never applied in Scripture to any but the Father. It is
for those who claim the reverse to give a text, and show its applicability to Jesus or anyone else than
the Father. Here is a way to prove the matter conclusively-the New Testament writers quote much
from the Old Testament; do they ever quote a passage in which the word Jehovah occurs and apply it
to Jesus? We claim that they do not.” -Quoted from pages 2,3 of the August 1882 issue of Zion’s
Watch Tower. [Note: In recent years the Society has backed down from this position.]

Contrast what Russell wrote with this statement from a contemporary of his - J. Gresham Machen, a
Professor at Princeton. He wrote in the book Christianity and Liberalism (1923):

“It is a matter of small consequence whether Paul ever applies to Jesus the Greek word which is
translated ‘God’ in the English Bible; certainly it is very difficult, in view of Rom. ix. 5, to deny that he
does. However that may be, the term ‘Lord,’ which is Paul’s regular designation of Jesus, is really just
as much a designation of deity as is the term ‘God.’ It was a designation of deity even in the pagan
religions with which Paul’s converts were familiar; and (what is far more important) in the Greek
translation of the Old Testament which was current in Paul’s day and was used by the Apostle himself,
the term was used to translate the ‘Jahwe’ of the Hebrew text. And Paul does not hesitate to apply to
Jesus stupendous passages in the Greek Old Testament where the term Lord thus designates the
God of Israel.”-page 97. [Note: for those interested in whether the term “God” is applied to Jesus in
the N.T., see our information sheets dealing with Titus 2:13/2 Peter 1:1; John 1:1; and Colossians 2:9.]

Let’s consider a few quotations from the Old Testament and see if the New Testament writers had any
problem in applying passages containing the name Yahweh to Jesus. We will use the New World
Translation for these comparisons.

The apostle Paul quoted Psalm 68:18 and applied it to the Ascension of Jesus Christ. Psalm 68:18
says: “You have ascended on high; you have carried away captives; you have taken gifts in the form
of men, Yes, even the stubborn ones, to reside among them, O Jah God.” (“Jah” is an abbreviated
form of the name Jehovah.) Notice how Paul applies this passage at Ephesians 4:7-10: “Now to each
one of us undeserved kindness was given according to how the Christ measured out the free gift.
Wherefore he says: ‘When he ascended on high he carried away captives; he gave gifts in men.’ Now
the expression ‘he ascended,’ what does it mean but that he also descended into the lower regions,
that is, the earth? The very one that descended is also the one that ascended far above all the
heavens, that he might give fulness to all things.”

Hebrews 1:10-12 quotes the Greek Septuagint version of Psalm 102:25-27 and applies it to Christ:
“You at the beginning, O Lord, laid the foundations of the earth itself, and the heavens are the works
of your hands. They themselves will perish, but you yourself are to remain continually; and just like an
outer garment they will grow old, and you will wrap them up just as a cloak, as an outer garment; and
they will be changed, but you are the same, and your years will never run out.” Not only do we here
see a New Testament writer apply an Old Testament passage about Yahweh to Jesus Christ - notice
to what lengths this New Testament writer will go in his scripture application. He openly identifies
Christ as the Creator of heaven and earth. And he contrasts the impermanence of creation against its
Creator, who is unchangeable and eternal. Does it make sense to think the writer of Hebrews felt
Christ was only a creature after seeing how he applies Scripture?

Notice this comparison between 1 Peter 3:14,15 and Isaiah 8:12,13. 1 Peter says: “But even if you
should suffer for the sake of righteousness, you are happy. However, the object of their fear do not
you fear, neither become agitated. But sanctify the Christ as Lord in your hearts, always ready to
make a defense before everyone that demands of you a reason for the hope in you, but doing so
together with a mild temper and deep respect.” Now, Isaiah says: “‘You men must not say, “A
conspiracy!” respecting all that of which this people keep saying, “A conspiracy!” and the object of
their fear you men must not fear, nor must you tremble at it. Jehovah of armies - he is the One whom
you should treat as holy, and he should be the object of your fear, and he should be the One causing
you to tremble.’” This comparison is even more striking if one compares the Greek word order of 1
Peter with the Greek Septuagint of Isaiah. The Hebrew says: “Sanctify Jehovah of hosts” (according
to Jay Green’s The Interlinear Hebrew-Greek-English Bible) but the Greek Septuagint has “Sanctify ye
the Lord himself.” (From Brenton’s translation of the Septuagint.) Now, Peter, writing in Greek, would
most naturally quote from the standard Greek translation of the OT. - the Septuagint. The Septuagint
here says: kurion auton hagiasate (Greek word order: “Lord himself sanctify”). Peter’s quotation in 1
Peter 3:14,15 is practically identical except here he exchanges the word auton(himself) for who is
Christ. Peter writes: kurion de ton christon hagiasate (Greek word order: “Lord but the Christ
sanctify” - compare the Watchtower Society’s Kingdom Interlinear Translation.) It is as if Peter were
adding a parenthetical thought to his quotation from Isaiah: “The object of their fear do not you fear,
neither become agitated. The Lord (who is Christ) you should sanctify. . .“ Peter was making sure we
knew that the Lord we are to sanctify is Christ!

Notice this prophecy from Isaiah 40:3-5: “Listen! Someone is calling out in the wilderness: ‘Clear up
the way of Jehovah, you people! Make the highway for our God through the desert plain straight. Let
every valley be raised up, and every mountain and hill be made low. And the knobby ground must
become level land, and the rugged ground a valley plain. And the glory of Jehovah will certainly be
revealed, and all flesh must see it together. “‘ Matthew 3:1-3, Mark 1:1-4, Luke 3:2-6 and John 1:23
apply this passage to John the Baptist’s preparatory work before the ministry of Jesus.

It becomes undeniable that New Testament writers applied Old Testament passages about Yahweh to
Jesus. Can we be sure they were thereby identifying Jesus with Yahweh? Consider this example:
Isaiah 6:1-10: “In the year that King Uzziah died I, however, got to see Jehovah, sitting on a throne
lofty and lifted up, and his skirts were filling the temple. Seraphs were standing above him. . .And this
one called to that one and said: ‘Holy, holy, holy is Jehovah of armies. The fullness of all the earth is
his glory’. . .And I proceeded to say: ‘Woe to me! . for my eyes have seen the King, Jehovah of armies,
himself!’. . .And I began to hear the voice of Jehovah saying: ‘Whom shall I send, and who will go for
us?’ And I proceeded to say: ‘Here I am! Send me.’ And he went on to say: ‘Go, and you must say to
this people, “Hear again and again, O men, but do not understand; and see again and again, but do
not get any knowledge.” Make the heart of this people unreceptive, and make their very ears
unresponsive, and paste their very eyes together, that they may not see with their eyes and with
their ears they may not hear, and that their own heart may not understand and that they may not
actually turn back and get healing for themselves .“‘ Compare this with John 12:36b,37,39-41: “Jesus
spoke these things and went off and hid from them. But although he had performed so many signs
before them, they were not putting faith in him. . .The reason why they were not able to believe is that
Isaiah said: ‘He has blinded their eyes and he has made their hearts hard, that they should not see
with their eyes and get the thought with their hearts and turn around and I should heal them.’ Isaiah
said these things because he saw his glory, and he spoke about him.” If the Apostle John had no
problem saying that Isaiah’s vision of Jehovah in His temple was a vision of Christ’s glory, why should
we? Even the New World Translation Reference Bible cross-references Isaiah 6:1 to John 12:41!

We are told at Isaiah 45:22-24: “Turn to me and be saved, all you at the ends of the earth; for I am God,
and there is no one else. By my own self I have sworn - out of my own mouth in righteousness the
word has gone forth, so that it will not return - that to me every knee will bend down, every tongue
will swear, saying, ‘Surely in Jehovah there are full righteousness and strength.”’ Notice how Paul
makes a direct allusion to this passage at Philippians 2:9-11 (NIV): “Therefore God exalted him to the
highest place and gave him the name that is above every name, that at the name of Jesus every knee
should bow, in heaven and on the earth and under the earth, and every tongue confess that Jesus
Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father.” At Isaiah 45:23 we were told that every knee would
bend in worship and every tongue swear to Jehovah. Paul alludes to this and says this would happen
“at the name of Jesus.” Why? Because Paul adds that God has shared with Christ “the name that is
above every name” - the Divine Name. So, when every knee bows before Jesus and every tongue
confesses Jesus Christ as LORD, does this detract from the Father? Not at all! Rather, Paul said this
would glorify God the Father! - compare John 5:23. (Interestingly, early editions of the New Testament
part of the New World Translation had a cross-reference at Philippians 2:10 pointing to Isaiah 45:23.
Their 1984 Reference Bible edition has removed that cross-reference.)

Consider these points: What was the most sacred Name to the Jews? Didn’t the people of Israel have
an intense awe for the Divine Name? So, how could Paul and Peter and John (who were from a
Jewish background) so freely apply passages about Yahweh to Jesus Christ? Why did they have no
hesitation in identifying Christ with Jehovah? When they called Jesus LORD, weren’t they making a
mind-boggling claim? The risen Savior was identified with Yahweh of the Old Testament! Is that
perhaps one reason why we are told at 1 Corinthians 12:3: “No one can say: ‘Jesus is LORD,’ except
by the Holy Spirit.”


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Is Jesus Yahweh/Jehovah? By Dave Brown Empty Re: Is Jesus Yahweh/Jehovah? By Dave Brown

Post by Jewel on Sun Aug 29, 2010 7:54 pm


Who is the author of that article, is he a Jew following Judaism or A christian trinitarian?

Parang obyos eh Is Jesus Yahweh/Jehovah? By Dave Brown Icon_porc

Posts : 469
Join date : 2010-07-17

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Is Jesus Yahweh/Jehovah? By Dave Brown Empty Re: Is Jesus Yahweh/Jehovah? By Dave Brown

Post by Michael Servetus on Sun Aug 29, 2010 10:58 pm

That is someone else work not yours, I suggest you use your own mental capacity and explain it to me.
Michael Servetus

Posts : 33
Join date : 2010-07-20

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